Chapter 4
The
Neuro-anesthesia
1.
Total normal cerebral blood flow (CBF) is
A.
25 mL/100 g/min
B.
50 mL/100 g/min
C.
100 mL/100 g/min
D.
150 mL/100 g/min
2.
The factor associated with maximum increase in intracranial pressure (ICP) is
A.
Increased central venous pressure to 14 mm Hg
B.
Hypercarbia with PaCO2 of 50 mm Hg
C.
Ventilation with positive end–expiratory pressure (PEEP) of 5 cm H2O
D.
Bucking and coughing on endotracheal tube
3.
Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) (mm Hg) in a patient with intracranial
pressure (ICP) of 12 mm Hg, central venous pressure (CVP) of 15 mm Hg, and mean
arterial pressure (MAP) of 70 mm Hg will be
A. 58
B. 55
C. 52
D. 48
4. Treatment of a patient with mannitol can lead to all the
following, except
A. Oliguria
B. Hypotension
C. Hypervolemia
D. Hypokalemia
5. A patient is undergoing craniotomy for subdural hematoma.
During the procedure, the surgeon requests lowering the intracranial
pressure. All the following can be used, except
A.
Mannitol
B.
Hyperventilation
C.
Steroids
D.
Furosemide
6.
The desired level of PaCO2 in a neurosurgical patient is
A.
30 to 35 mm Hg
B.
25 to 30 mm Hg
C.
20 to 25 mm Hg
D.
15 to 25 mm Hg
7. An absolute contraindication for electroconvulsive
therapy (ECT) is
A. Hypertension
B. Pheochromocytoma
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Stroke
8. Signs of air embolism in a patient include all, except
A. Hypertension
B. Heart murmur
C. Arrhythmia
D. Decreased EtCO2
9.
A 65-year-old male is undergoing surgery for medulloblastoma in the posterior fossa of brain. Approximately 1 hour into surgery you notice
arrhythmias on the monitors. The next step will be
A. Inform the surgeon
B. Give Beta
blockers
C. Administer lidocaine
D. Give 100% oxygen
10. Nitrous oxide should be avoided in patients with
A. Subdural hematoma
B. Brain tumor
C. Closed head injury
D. Pneumocephalus
11.
The following fluid should be avoided in a patient undergoing craniotomy
A. Lactated Ringer’s
B. Normal saline
C. Dextrose 5%—normal saline
D. Hetastarch
12. Most sensitive method to detect air embolism is
A. Transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE)
B. Decreased end-tidal carbon dioxide
C. Increased end-tidal nitrogen
D. Mill wheel murmur
13. Best measure to reduce cerebral oxygen consumption
includes
A. Administration of barbiturates
B. Hyperventilation
C. Administration of opioids
D. Institution of hypothermia
14. All of the following decrease cerebral blood flow (CBF),
except
A. Etomidate
B. Propofol
C. Thiopental
D. Ketamine
15. In a patient undergoing craniotomy, the transducer of
arterial line should be zeroed at the
A. Level of hypothalamus
B. Level of heart
C. Level of external auditory meatus
D. Level of atmosphere
16. Jugular venous oxygen saturation
A. Estimates oxygen extraction
B. Is unaffected by systemic hypoxia
C. Involves placement of catheter through inferior
vena cava
D. Monitors global oxygenation of both cerebral
hemispheres
17. The effect of ischemia on somatosensory-evoked
potentials (SSEPs) is
A. Decreased latency, decreased amplitude
B. Increased latency, increased amplitude
C. Decreased latency, increased amplitude
D. Increased latency, decreased amplitude
18. A patient with spinal injury, sustained 3 hours ago, comes to the OR for exploratory laparotomy. Anesthetic
management of the patient includes which of the following?
A. Rapid-sequence induction with succinylcholine
B. Hypothermia for better neurologic outcome
C. Managing autonomic hyperreflexia
D. Avoiding corticosteroids
19. The electrophysiological monitor most resistant to
anesthetic agents is
A. Somatosensory-evoked potentials
B. Motor-evoked potentials
C. Brain-stem auditory-evoked potentials
D. Electroencephalography
20. The most reliable monitor for neurologic monitoring in a
patient undergoing carotid endarterectomy is
A. Electroencephalogram
B. Jugular venous oxygen saturation
C. Awake neurologic exam
D. Stump pressure
21.
Anesthetic management of a patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) includes
A. Avoiding hypothermia
B. Avoiding hyperthermia
C. Spinal anesthesia is safe
D. Use of succinylcholine can result in hypokalemia
22. All
the following are true for Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS), except
A. Respiratory paralysis is frequent complication
B. Presence of labile autonomic nervous system
C. Ascending motor paralysis
D. Exaggerated reflexes
23.
True statement about autonomic hyperreflexia is
A. Lesions below T10 is responsible for the reflex
B. It can be treated with deep general anesthetic
C. It is associated with vasoconstriction above the
site of injury
D. It can be provoked by thermal stimulation
24. A 16-year-old patient with acute lysergic acid
diethylamide (LSD) intoxication and head injury comes to emergency room. All the following can be used in anesthetic management,
except
A. Propofol
B. Succinylcholine
C. Ketamine
D. Phenylephrine
25. A 25-year-old patient with severe depression is undergoing an electroconvulsive
therapy (ECT). The duration of seizure can be increased by
A. Hypoventilating
the patient
B. Hyperventilating the patient
C. Administering succinylcholine
D. Administering rocuronium
26. All of the following are contraindications of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), except
A. Pacemaker
B. Recent stroke
C. Raised intracranial pressure
D. Severe osteoporosis
27. True
statement regarding cerebral physiology is
A. Normal cerebral metabolic oxygen consumption is 5
mL/100g/min
B. Normal Intracranial pressure (ICP) is
approximately 15 mm Hg
C. Normal cerebral blood flow (CBF) is 50 mL/100g/min
D. Cerebral autoregulation is strictly maintained at
blood pressures between 60 and 150 mm Hg in all patients
28.
True statement about cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is
A. It is formed in the third ventricle
B. It is absorbed in arachnoid granulations present
in fourth ventricle
C. Total volume of CSF is about 150 mL
D. Major mechanism of formation is by passive
diffusion of ions
29.
A precordial Doppler can detect a minimal of ___ mL of intracardiac air:
A. 0.1
B. 0.25
C. 0.5
D. 1
30.
The only inhalational anesthetic that can cause an isoelectric EEG among the
following is
A. Isoflurane
B. Halothane
C. Enflurane
D. Nitrous oxide
31.
Intraoperative anesthetic management of a patient
undergoing cerebral aneurysm repair includes all, except
A. Maintenance of hypotension
B. Mannitol for facilitating surgical exposure
C. Maintaining mild hypothermia
D. Patient remaining intubated for 24 hours
postoperatively
32. Which of the following types of neuromonitoring can be
done in a patient undergoing transsphenoidal resection of a pituitary tumor?
A. EEG
B. Motor-evoked potentials
C. Visual-evoked potentials
D. Auditory-evoked potentials
33. The drug of choice for treating nausea and vomiting in a patient with parkinsonism would be
A. Ondansetron
B. Promethazine
C. Droperidol
D. Metoclopramide
34. All the following anesthetic agents can cause seizurelike activity on the electroencephalogram
(EEG), except
A. Ketamine
B. Etomidate
C. Enflurane
D. Thiopental
35. The neuromuscular blocking agent relatively
contraindicated in a patient with raised intracranial pressure (ICP) is
A. Rocuronium
B. Vecuronium
C. Atracurium
D. Cisatracurium
36.
The afferent input for somatosensory-evoked potentials
is carried by which spinal cord tract
A. Corticospinal
B. Dorsal columns
C. Spinothalamic
D. Spinocerebellar
37. You
are called to evaluate a 50-year-old patient for brain death. All the following
are criteria for brain death,
except
A. Apnea for 10 minutes
B. Absence of corneal reflex
C. Presence of spinal reflexes
D. Decerebrate posturing
38. A
30-year-old male is found unresponsive outside a supermarket. The emergency
response team finds him in ventricular fibrillation. After 10 minutes of CPR,
the emergency response team
is successful in reviving the patient. In the emergency room, it is decided to
cool the patient to 34°C from 37°C. By
this measure, the cerebral metabolic demand will decrease by
A. 12%
B. 18%
C. 24%
D. 30%
39. All the following are relative contraindications to a
sitting craniotomy, except
A. Right-to-left cardiac shunt
B. Patent foramen ovale
C. Ventriculoatrial shunt
D. Ventriculoperitoneal shunt
40. An
80-year-old female comes to the ER with closed distal radial fracture. On
further questioning, she gives a history of stroke about 2 weeks ago. How long
should one wait before it can be assumed that her risk of perioperative stroke
is same as a healthy 80-year-old?
A. 6 days
B. 6 weeks
C. 6 months
D. 6 years
41.
A 28-year-old male is being treated in the ICU for raised intracranial pressure
(ICP). All the following measures can aid in decreasing ICP quickly, except
A.
Corticosteroids
B.
Hyperventilation to PaCO2 of 30 mm Hg
C.
Mannitol
D.
Head elevation to 30 degrees
42.
Which of the following agents will have the least
effect on somatosensory-evoked potentials (SSEPs)?
A. Vecuronium
B. Propofol
C. Fentanyl
D. Nitrous oxide
43. Signs and symptoms of raised intracranial hypertension
include all the following, except
A. Hypertension
B. Tachycardia
C.
Bradycardia
D.
Irregular respiration
44.
Etomidate in a dose of 0.2 mg/kg can lead to all the
following, except
A. Abolish ventilatory response to carbon dioxide
B. Increase amplitude and latency of somatosensory-evoked potentials (SSEPs)
C. Decrease cerebral metabolic oxygen demand
D. Decrease cerebral blood flow (CBF)
45. The most important factor governing cerebral blood flow
(CBF) is
A. Cerebral metabolic oxygen demand
B.
Paco2
C.
pH
D.
Cerebral perfusion pressure
46.
The following graph depicts the relationship between cerebral perfusion and
A.
PaCO_2
B.
PaO_2
C.
Mean arterial pressure
D.
Cerebrospinal fluid pH
47.
A 45-year-old male is seen in the preadmission testing for pituitary adenoma
resection surgery. All the following would be expected if this adenoma was
causing acromegaly, except
A.
Hypotension
B.
Obstructive sleep apnea
C.
Difficult airway
D.
Hyperglycemia
48.
The fastest measure to decrease intracranial pressure (ICP) in a patient is
A.
Mannitol
B.
Dexamethasone
C.
Furosemide
D.
Hyperventilation
49.
Therapy for cerebral vasospasm includes
A.
Hypertension, hypervolemia, hemodilution
B.
Normotension, euvolemia, hypocarbia
C.
Hypotension, hypovolemia, hypocarbia
D.
Hypertension, hypervolemia, hypocarbia
50.
For each 1°C decrease in body temperature, how much will cerebral metabolic
rate (CMRO2) be diminished?
A.
2%
B.
4%
C.
6%
D.
10%
Correct answers and Explanations
1. B. Normal total CBF is about 50 mL/100
g/min. CBF below 20 mL/100 g/min is associated with cerebral ischemia. CBF is
modulated by various factors, which include PaCO2, PaO2, blood
pressure, intracranial pressure, etc.
2. D. Intracranial pressure is supratentorial
CSF pressure measured in the lateral ventricles or cerebral cortex. Normal ICP
is 10 mm Hg or less. Between PaCO2 values
of 20 and 80 mm Hg, CBF increases by 1 mL/100 g/min and cerebral blood volume
increases by 0.05 mL/110g/min per mm Hg increase in PaCO2.
Increase in CVP and adding PEEP will minimally increase ICP by affecting venous
return. Coughing and bucking can cause a much higher increase in ICP (acute
increase) than any of the above factors.
|
3. B. |
CPP = MAP - ICP or CVP, whichever is higher.
Thus, CPP = 70 - 15 = 55 mm Hg. |
4. A. Mannitol, a six-carbon sugar, is the most
commonly used diuretic in neuroanesthesia practice. It is an osmotic diuretic
and undergoes little or no reabsorption. It also improves renal blood flow.
Side effects include an initial increase in circulatory volume, which can cause
pulmonary edema. Diuresis attributed to mannitol can lead to hypovolemia and
hypokalemia.
5. C. Treatment of intracranial hypertension
includes hyperventilation to PaCO2 of 25 to
30 mm Hg, improving CSF drainage by elevating the head by 30 degrees or
surgical placement of CSF drain, using an osmotic diuretic (mannitol),
hypertonic saline, decompression craniectomy, barbiturates, and
corticosteroids. The latter have been used to decrease cerebral edema, and take
a few hours to have effect, but routine use of corticosteroids in managing
intracranial hypertension is not recommended.
6.B. PaCO2 is the
most potent physiologic determinant of cerebral blood flow. Maximal reductions in ICP can be achieved
by decreasing PaCO2 to 25 to 28 mm Hg, and the reduction in
ICP lasts up to 24 to 36 hours.
7.B ECT is commonly used for treatment of
refractory major depression. It involves using electricity to shock one or both
cerebral hemispheres to induce a seizure lasting 30 to 60 seconds.
Contraindications to ECT include pheochromocytoma, recent myocardial infarction
(<3 months), recent stroke (<1 month), intracranial mass or increased
ICP, angina, poorly controlled heart failure, significant pulmonary disease,
bone fractures, severe osteoporosis, pregnancy, glaucoma, and retinal
detachment.
8. A. Clinical signs of venous air embolism
include a decrease in end-tidal CO2, a
decrease in arterial oxygen saturation, sudden
hypotension, mill wheel murmur, and even sudden circulatory arrest. Presence of
a patent foramen ovale, which has an incidence of 20% in adults, can lead to
paradoxical air embolism, with the potential of causing coronary ischemia or a
stroke.
9. A. For posterior fossa tumor resection, the
patient is frequently placed in the
sitting or prone position. Monitoring of the
patient includes arterial blood pressure line, a central venous catheter (for
access, pressure monitoring, aspiration of any air —if required), and a
precordial Doppler to detect intracardiac air (venous air embolism). Operations
on posterior fossa tumors can injure vital brain-stem respiratory and
circulatory nuclei, resulting in hemodynamic fluctuations or depression of
ventilation. The surgeon should be informed at the first sign of cardiac
arrhythmias.
10. D. Nitrous oxide can diffuse into closed air
spaces, which may be of significant
clinical consequences. The blood/gas
coefficient of nitrous oxide is 0.47, whereas that of nitrogen is 0.015. This
means that nitrous oxide is about 33 times more diffusible than nitrogen. As a
result, at any given partial pressure, far more nitrous oxide can be carried
into a closed gas space than nitrogen removed. Thus, nitrous oxide can quickly
expand closed gas spaces, such as middle ear or a pneumothorax.
11. C. In a patient undergoing craniotomy,
intravenous fluid replacement should be performed by using glucose-free
isotonic crystalloid or colloid solutions. Hyperglycemia is known to worsen
ischemic brain injury.
12. A. The most sensitive intraoperative monitor
for detecting venous air embolism is TEE. The second best monitor is precordial
Doppler sonography, which can detect as little as 0.25 mL of air. Changes in
end-tidal respiratory gas concentrations, such as nitrogen and carbon dioxide,
and changes in pulmonary artery pressures are less sensitive. Hypotension and
mill wheel murmur are late manifestations of venous air
embolism.
13. D. Hypothermia is one of the most effective
methods for protecting the brain against ischemia. Hypothermia decreases both
basal and electrical metabolic requirements throughout the brain, unlike
intravenous anesthetic agents or hyperventilation.
14. D. Propofol, barbiturates, and etomidate
produce dose-dependent decreases in cerebral metabolic rate and CBF. Ketamine
is the only induction agent that dilates the cerebral vasculature and thus
increases CBF (50% to 60%).
15. C. In a seated patient, the arterial
pressure in the brain differs significantly from left ventricular pressure.
Cerebral perfusion pressure is determined by setting the transducer to zero at
the level of the ear, which approximates the circle of Willis.
16. D. Jugular venous bulb oximetry involves
placing a sampling catheter in the internal jugular vein (IJV). The normal
range for mixed venous oxygen saturation at IJV is 50% to 75%. It gives an
estimate of balance between oxygen supply and demand of the brain, and measures
global cerebral oxygenation (not focal).
17. D. SSEPs reflect the integrity of neuronal
pathway from the peripheral nerves through the spinal cord (dorsal columns) to
the brain. SSEPs are electrical manifestations of the central nervous system
response to external stimulation. Intraoperative changes in amplitude or
latency or complete loss of waveforms are indicators of compromised sensory
pathway integrity. SSEP amplitude loss greater than 50% or a latency increase
greater than 10% is considered significant.
18. A. In the early management of acute spinal
injury patients, particular emphasis should be placed on preventing further
spinal damage, which may occur during patient movement, airway manipulation,
and positioning. High-dose corticosteroids are often administered to help
improve neurological outcome. The head and neck should be stabilized using
manual inline stabilization, and awake fiberoptic intubation should be
considered in high cervical injuries. Patients with high cord transections may
have impaired airway reflexes, hypotension, and bradycardia and may be prone to
hypothermia in view of generalized vasodilation. Succinylcholine can be used
safely in first 24 hours following spinal injury.
19. C. Somatosensory- and motor-evoked potential
monitoring is commonly used to detect ischemia of spinal cord in spine
surgeries. Brain-stem auditory–evoked responses monitor ischemia during
posterior fossa surgeries. Inhalational agents in general increase the latency
and decrease the amplitude of evoked potentials (if used at more than 0.5–0.75
MAC). The effect of inhalational anesthetics on evoked potentials in decreasing
order is visual > motor > somatosensory > brain-stem auditory.
20. C. Awake neurological status is the most reliable
method to detect cerebral ischemia. In patients undergoing carotid
endarterectomy under local anesthesia and mild sedation, global and focal
neurological status can be continuously assessed. In patients undergoing
carotid endarterectomy under general anesthetic indirect methods to detect
cerebral ischemia can be used. These include EEG monitoring, transcranial
Doppler, arteriography, and measurement of blood flow using xenon.
21. B. MS is characterized by progressive
demyelination in the brain and spinal cord. Stress, anesthesia, and surgery can
have detrimental effects on the course of the disease. Elective surgery should
be avoided in acute relapse of MS. Regarding the effect of anesthetic technique
on MS, spinal anesthesia can exacerbate MS symptoms, epidural anesthesia
usually does not affect MS, succinylcholine should be avoided to prevent
hyperkalemia, and hyperthermia should be avoided as an increase in temperature
may block nerve conduction. Advanced MS may be associated with autonomic dysfunction.
22. D. GBS affects about 2/100,000 people. It is
characterized by a sudden onset ascending motor paralysis, areflexia, and
paresthesias. Bulbar involvement with respiratory failure is a frequent
complication. Succinylcholine should be avoided in these patients, as it can
cause hyperkalemia. Regional anesthesia may make GBS worse. Anesthetic
management may be complicated by liability of the autonomic nervous system
(hypotension or hypertension).
23. B. Autonomic hyperreflexia is seen in
patients with spinal cord injury at or above T6. It is characterized by acute
generalized sympathetic hyperactivity in response to a triggering stimulus. The
triggering stimulus can be any stimulus occurring below the level of the
lesion, and is most commonly a distension of hollow viscera (bowel or bladder).
Clinical signs include severe hypertension, bradycardia, arrhythmias, profuse
sweating, vasodilation above the level of lesion, and pallor and
vasoconstriction below the level of lesion. Antihypertensives may have to be
utilized to treat the hypertension. Spinal anesthesia (not preferred because of
technical difficulty and unpredictable level) or deep general anesthesia has
been used inpreventing autonomic hyperreflexia.
24. C. LSD is a hallucinogen and causes CNS excitation,
sensory distortion, delusions, hallucinations, and euphoria. Autonomic effects,
mediated via the hypothalamus, include tachycardia, hypertension, mydriasis,
piloerection, salivation, lacrimation, and vomiting. In view of hypertension
and tachycardia that can be caused by LSD, ketamine should be avoided.
25. B. Propofol when used for induction in
patients undergoing ECT can increase the seizure threshold and decrease the
duration of the seizure. Hyperventilation and administration of caffeine or etomidate
can increase seizure duration. Muscle relaxants do not affect the threshold or
duration of the seizure.
26. A. Contraindications to ECT include recent
myocardial infarction (<3 months), a recent stroke (<1 month), an
intracranial mass and raised intracranial pressure, angina, poorly controlled
congestive heart failure, significant pulmonary disease, bone fractures, severe
osteoporosis, pregnancy, glaucoma, and retinal detachment.
27. C. The cerebral metabolic rate is reflected
by oxygen consumption, which is about 3 to 3.8 mL/100 g/min. Total CBF averages
50 mL/100 g/min. In normal individuals, CBF remains nearly constant between
mean arterial pressures of about 60 and 160 mm Hg. The cerebral autoregulation
curve is shifted to right in patients with chronic arterial hypertension. ICP
by convention means supratentorial CSF pressure measured in the lateral
ventricles or over the cerebral cortex, and the normal CSF pressure is 10 mm Hg
or less.
28. C. CSF is formed by the choroid plexuses of
cerebral lateral ventricles. In adults, normal CSF production is about 20
mL/hour with a total volume of 150 mL. The CSF is absorbed in arachnoid
granulations over cerebral hemispheres. CSF formation involves active secretion
of sodium in the choroid plexuses, and not passive diffusion.
29. B. A precordial Doppler can detect as little
as 0.25 mL of intracardiac air. A precordial Doppler is the next best sensitive
indicator to detect intracardiac air after a transesophageal echocardiogram.
30. A. Isoflurane can produce an isoelectric EEG
at 2 to 2.5 MAC, while enflurane typically produces a spike and wave pattern at
2 to 3 MAC. Seizure activity may be seen on EEG with 3% enflurane in a
hypocapnic patient. Halothane causes slowing of EEG activity with increasing
concentration until 4 MAC, after which it produces uniform activity. Increasing
sevoflurane concentration from 2 to 5 MAC changes the cortical EEG pattern from
a high-amplitude slow wave to burst suppression to an isoelectric EEG
interspersed with spikes.
31. D. Intraoperative management of cerebral
aneurysms should include availability of blood, avoidance of hypertension
during induction, central venous pressure and arterial blood pressure
monitoring, mannitol after the dura is opened to help surgical exposure, elective
hypotension as it decreases transmural pressure across the aneurysm (avoiding
rupture), administration of thiopental and mild hypothermia for cerebral
protection, and awake extubation depending on neurological status.
32. C. The transsphenoidal or bifrontal
craniotomy approach may be used to gain access to pituitary gland. The former
(transsphenoidal approach) has several advantages including elimination of
frontal lobe retraction, microsurgical removal of small adenomas, reduced blood
loss, and shorter hospital stay. Patients are intubated endotracheally (oral),
and oropharyngeal packing is done to prevent bleeding into the esophagus.
Additionally, epinephrine or cocaine may be injected submucosally to reduce
bleeding. The cavernous sinus forms the lateral border of the sella turcica and
includes the internal carotid artery, venous structures, and cranial nerves
III, IV, V, and VI. Therefore, visual-evoked potentials may be monitored in the
OR for early detection of visual pathway damage.
33. A. Parkinson disease is a movement disorder
that affects individuals 50 to 70 years of age. It is caused by progressive
loss of dopamine in the nigrostriatum. Patients have bradykinesia, postural
instability, rigidity, facial masking, and a resting pillrolling tremor.
Antidopaminergic activity associated with butyrophenones, phenothiazines, and
metoclopramide can worsen symptoms and thus these should be avoided.
34. D. Ketamine, etomidate, and enflurane can
cause seizurelike activity on the EEG. Thiopental increases the threshold and
decreases the duration of seizure activity.
35. C. In a patient with increased intracranial
pressure, a nondepolarizing muscle relaxant is commonly used to facilitate
controlled ventilation and tracheal intubation. Rocuronium and vecuronium are
commonly used as they provide the greatest hemodynamic stability.
Succinylcholine and atracurium (due to associated histamine release) may increase ICP, particularly if intubation is attempted
before deep general anesthesia. Hyperventilation prior to intubation is
utilized to decrease the ICP.
36. B. Somatosensory-evoked
potentials are transmitted through the following
pathway:
peripheral stimulus → peripheral nerve → dorsal
root ganglia → first-order fibers in the ipsilateral posterior column to dorsal
column nuclei → second-order fibers crossing to the opposite side → medial
lemniscus to the thalamus → third-order fibers continuing to the frontoparietal
sensory-motor cortex.
37. D. Brain
death is irreversible cessation of all brain activity. Generally accepted
clinical criteria for brain death include
presence of coma, absence of motor activity, absence of brain-stem reflexes
(papillary, corneal, vestibule–ocular, and gag/cough), absence of ventilatory
effort (PaCO2 >60 mm
Hg), exclusion of hypothermia or effect of sedatives, isoelectric EEG, and
absence of cerebral perfusion by angiography.
38. B. Cerebral
metabolic rate decreases by 6% per degree Celsius decrease in body
temperature below 37°C. Hence, a 3°C
drop in temperature will decrease the cerebral metabolic rate by 18%.
39. D. The
incidence of venous air embolism in sitting craniotomies is about 20% to
40%. The presence of right-to-left shunt can
cause paradoxical air embolism. Air embolism can have catastrophic
consequences, such as coronary ischemia and stroke. Thus, sitting position
should be avoided in patients with a right-to-left shunt, patent foramen ovale,
or ventriculoatrial shunt.
40. B. Regional
blood flow and metabolic rate are normal after 2 weeks following a
stroke. Alterations in CO2 responsiveness
and blood–brain barrier abnormalities require more than 4 weeks to be
corrected. Thus, most clinicians postpone elective surgery for at least 6 weeks
following stroke.
41. A. Definitive treatment of intracranial
hypertension is ideally directed at the
underlying cause. Treatment modalities include
fluid restriction, head elevation, osmotic agents and loop diuretics, moderate
hyperventilation (up to 24–36 hours), avoidance of hypotension, hypoxia and
hypercarbia, and corticosteroids. The latter is used to decrease cerebral edema
in patients with known intracranial tumors, and take a few hours to take
effect.
42. A. Inhalational volatile anesthetics produce
an increase in latency and decrease in
amplitude of evoked potentials. Nitrous oxide
produces a decrease in amplitude with no change in latency. Propofol decreases
amplitude and an increase in latency of SSEPs. Muscle relaxants have no effect
on SSEPs. Narcotics cause dose-dependent decrease in amplitude and increase in
latency.
43. B. Increased intracranial pressure (ICP) can
lead to altered mental status,
intractable vomiting, and focal or global
neurological deficits. Clinical signs include hypertension, bradycardia,
irregular respiration, and pupillary changes (papilledema may be seen on
fundoscopy). Cushing triad consists of raised ICP, hypertension, and
bradycardia.
44. A. Etomidate decreases cerebral metabolic
rate, CBF, leading to a decrease in
intracranial pressure. It enhances SSEP. It is
a sedative hypnotic but lacks analgesic properties. Ventilation is affected to
a lesser extent with etomidate when compared to barbiturates or
benzodiazepines. Induction doses usually do not result in apnea.
45. A. Increased metabolic activity leads to an
increase in CBF. Regional CBF parallels metabolic activity and can vary from 10
to 300 mL/100 g/min. For example, motor activity of a limb is associated with a
rapid increase in regional blood flow of the corresponding motor cortex.
46. A. CO2 gas tension has the greatest influence on
cerebral blood flow (CBF). Between a PaCO2 of 20
and 80 mm Hg, CBF changes approximately 1 to 2 mL/100 g/min per mm Hg in PaCO2.
47.A. The acromegaly patient suffers from
general overgrowth of skeletal, soft, and connective tissues. This results in
coarse facial features and enlarged hands and feet. Patients may also have a
difficult airway because of overgrowth of soft tissues of upper airway,
enlargement of tongue and epiglottis, overgrowth of mandible with increased
distance from lips to vocal cords, and glottic and subglottic narrowing. These
changes may also lead to obstructive sleep apnea. Patients also are prone to hyperglycemia, hypertension, congestive heart failure, increased
lung volumes, increased ventilation–perfusion mismatch, peripheral neuropathy,
skeletal muscle weakness, osteoarthritis, and osteoporosis.
49. D. The quickest way to reduce ICP in a
patient is hyperventilation, often to a PaCO2 of 25 mm
Hg. Reduced PaCO2 (hypocarbia) causes cerebral
vasoconstriction leading to a reduction in cerebral blood flow and cerebral
blood volume. However, hyperventilation is only used as a temporizing measure
only in periods of acute raised ICP.
50. A. Cerebral vasospasm occurs in about
one-third of patients surviving the initial aneurysmal rupture, and carries a
high degree of morbidity and mortality. The degree of vasospasm depends on the
degree of initial subarachnoid hemorrhage. Vasospasm usually develops 3 to 14
days postsubarachnoid hemorrhage results in narrowing of cerebral blood vessels
and decreased blood flow distally. This may lead to an ischemic deficit and
cerebral infarction, if left untreated. Therapies for cerebral vasospasm
include “triple-H therapy” (hypertension/hypervolemia/hemodilution), balloon
angioplasty, and intra-arterial nicardipine and other vasodilators.

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